Level 1 & 2 - Final Test - Special Tactics Solutions Inc.

Final Test

Please answer each question to the best of your ability. Your score will be tallied at the end of the exam.

1 / 48

What types of space(s) are established around an LZ (in relation to runways, helipads, or helicopter runways), that are designed to define the protected "airspace" around an airfield?

Accident Potential Zone(s)

Clear Zone(s)

Imaginary Surface(s)

Infield Area(s)

2 / 48

What is the nomenclature for a Drop Zone Survey Form?

AFSOC Form 3823

USAF Form 3823

DoD Form 3823

AF IMT 3823

3 / 48

What does the acronym CBR stand for?

California Bearing Ratio

Curriculum Based Regulations

California Burgers Rule

Calculated Bearing Rules

4 / 48

Semi-prepared (i.e. unpaved) LZ surfaces may be composed of the following?

Gravel, Sand, Silt, and Clay; except Loam

Well Graded Gravel & Sand, only

Well Graded Gravel & Sand, with stabilizing material

Stabilized soils, Aggregate surfaces, Compacted native soils, or matting

5 / 48

What does the acronym CDS stand for?

Container Delivery System

Combat Delivery System

Container Direction System

Combat Direction System

6 / 48

What is the file type generated by GSI Surveyor and used to import into DCS-MAPS?

LXM

XYZ

KMZ

XML

7 / 48

What is the Maintained Area obstruction tolerance, and the grade & slope criteria?

Free of Obstructions. Up Slope Only; Minimum 10% / Max. 15%

Max. 3 ft tall Obstructions. Up & Down Slope; greater than +10%

Frangible Obstructions Only. Up & Down Slope; Minimum 10% / Maximum 20%

Free of Obstructions. Up & Down Slope; may not exceed +10, or -20%

8 / 48

Who initiates an 'Operational Waiver' to an ETL 04-7 Criteria?

The OPR for the mission or exercise

The Airfield Survey Team

The MAJCOM/DO (Major Command/Director of Operations)

The JFACC, or JOC equivalent

9 / 48

How does a reduced RCR evaluation, and an increase in (PA) Pressure Altitude effect C-17 landing operations?

It increases the aircrafts weight limitations and reduces its lift capability

It increases landing surface length requirements

It increases the aircrafts lift capability, and reduces landing surface length requirements

No Effect at all; that's just jibberish!

10 / 48

Which Function-Key toggles on/off the OSNAP mode?

F8

F10

F3

F2

11 / 48

What are some examples of the type of activities that should be limited within an Accident Potential Zone (APZ)?

General Order #1, and other Tom Foolery

Troop Concentrations, Landfills, Crops & Vegetation, Smoke Pit

Exceeding published Glide Slope Ratio, Low Approaches, and Go-Arounds

Use of NAVAIDs, Air Traffic Control and Ground Taxi Operations

12 / 48

What are the three patterns for runway markings?

AMP 1, AMP 2, and AMP 3

Basic, Nonprecision Instrument Approach, and Precision Instrument Approach

STS-1, STS-2, and STS-3

Prepared, Semi-Prepared, Unsurfaced

13 / 48

Runway designation markings are relative to the magnetic azimuth (vs. True azimuth) of the runway centerline to the nearest 10-degree increment?

True

False

14 / 48

A solid white 'side stripe' on a runway indicates the edge of the usable pavement?

True

False

15 / 48

When firing the TruPulse 360 Laser Range Finder (LRF), maintain a minimum of _____ safe clearance from fire hydrants, road signs, seer cap or drains, steel poles, ATVs, guy wires, magnets, chain-link fences, bar-wire fences?

30 ft (10 m)

15 ft (5 m)

6 ft (2 m)

18 inches (50 cm)

16 / 48

When are Fixed Distance Markings used on runways?

Always, as long as there's enough white paint on hand

Only for runways that are at least 150 ft (45.7m) wide

For Non-Precision Runways and Military Airfields

For National and International Runways

17 / 48

What is required for a Tactical Drop Zone approval?

Supported Force Commander Tasking

A physical survey/site inspection, ONLY

A physical survey and a safety of flight review

Supporting & Supported Force Commander Approval

18 / 48

What are the three types of particle size distribution curves?

Cu = D60/D10. Cc = (D30)2/(D10 x D60). (Ps - Pw / 18n) x D2

Well Graded, Poorly Graded, Gap Graded

ASTM. FHWA. NAVFAC

Atterburg, Yong, and Casagrande

19 / 48

What are the correct markings for a Helipad's Perimeter & Identification with a single direction ingress?

A black colored capital "H" underlined, with broken square marking corners and along the edges to delineate the limits of the safe touchdown area

A black colored capital "H" with a chevron arrow indicating the direction of ingress

A red colored lower case "h" with dashed perimeter lines marking the minimum touchdown area

A black colored capital "H" inside a white cross background and solid red border

20 / 48

What's the Glideslope Ratio (GSR) for a C-146A "Wolfhound"?

8:1

11:1

20:1

35:1

21 / 48

If a runway is closed for less than five (5) days, how should it be marked?

Ensure an "X" is placed at all access points to the closed pavement

Obliterate the centerline stripe and mark the runway with an "X" at every intersection

Obliterate the designation numbers on both ends of the runway and mark an "X" in place of the numbers

No markings required; if NOTAM has been issued

22 / 48

If more than half of a soil sample passes through a #200 sieve it can be categorized as _______?

Sand

Gravel

Silt, and/or Clay

Loam

23 / 48

When can a layer of soil (measurement and CBR readings) be discarded from analysis?

Never

If a soft layer of less than 4 in (10 cm) exists as a top layer

Before and after using a drill to get past an impenetrable layer

If a soft layer of less than 4 in (10 cm) exists at any depth

24 / 48

What should be the order of priority when determining the locations of DCP, i.e. CBR, readings for an airfield?

Touchdown, Primary Breaking Area, Point of Rotation, and Turnaround

Primary Breaking Area, Turnaround, Touchdown, and Point of Rotation

Overrun, Touchdown, Roll-Out Area, Primary Breaking Area, Turnaround, and Overrun

Wet Areas, Repaired Areas, Primary Breaking Area, Turnaround, Touchdown, Point of Rotation

25 / 48

When conducting DCP readings which soil horizons are you most likely to encounter?

A, B, C, and D Horizons

O, A, E, and B Horizons

1, 2, 3, and 4 Horizons

A & B Horizons, only

26 / 48

Which of the eight different surface distress types are considered major distresses, and depending on location may cause an overall airfield rating of RED?

Jet Blast Erosion, Stabilized Layer Failure, and Longitudinal Cracking

Mist, Fog, Dust, Smoke, and other obstructions to visibility

Stabilized Layer Failure, Slab Cracking, and CBR readings less than four (4)

Potholes, Ruts, and Rolling Resistance Material

27 / 48

During a DCP reading, how should a subsurface impenetrable & unidentifiable layer be handled?

Auger through the impenetrable layer until you're able to take additional readings

Assign a CBR value of 80, and call it a day

Pull out the DCP and reinsert a new tip into the hole but at a different angle

Ring the bell, and say the words, "I quit!"

28 / 48

If a crack intersects both concrete slab joints _ feet from the corner, it is considered a ___. If it is _ feet, then it is considered a(n) _______.

> 5 ft / Shattered Slab/ < 5 ft / Interval Joint Seal Damage

> 10 ft / Durability Crack / < 10 ft / Alligator Crack

> 3 ft / Longitudinal Crack / < 3 ft / Transverse Crack

> 2 ft / Corner Break / < 2 ft / Spall

29 / 48

What are the Runway Clearance distances for both C-130 & C-17 aircraft on Paved and Semi-Prepared (unsurfaced) LZ's?

NOTE: Runway Clearance = Measured from the runway centerline to the near edge of the parking apron. Aprons may be contiguous with the runway, but parked aircraft and vehicles must be behind this line.

C-130 = 250 ft (76m) & C-17 = 280 (85.5m); they are the same for Paved & Semi-Prepared

C-130 = 280 ft (85.5m) & C-17 = 250 (76m) for Paved LZ's. METT-TC for Semi-Prepared

C-130 = 250 ft (76m) & C-17 = 280 (85.5m); for Semi-Prepared, add 10 ft (3.3m) for Paved

C-130 = 250 ft (76m) & C-17 = 280 (85.5m); for Paved; add 10 ft (3.3m) for Semi-Prepared

30 / 48

The overall performance of a GNSS is assessed using what four criteria?

Low, Medium Low, Medium High, and High

Honor, Integrity, Service, and Excellence

Accuracy, Integrity, Continuity, and Availability

Altitude, Elevation, Rotation, and Timing

31 / 48

How long is a Sidereal Day and how is it measured?

24 hours 37 minutes and 22.4 seconds. Measures the rotation of the Earth relative to the Stars rather than the Sun

24 hours 6 minutes and 4.1 seconds. Measures the rotation of the Sun relative to the Stars rather than the Earth

23 hours 56 minutes and 4.1 seconds. Measures the rotation of the Earth relative to the Stars rather than the Sun

56 hours 23 minutes and 4.1 seconds. Measures the rotation of the Stars relative to the Sun rather than the Earth

32 / 48

What does the acronym RTK stand for?

Right To Know

Real Time Kinematic

Receptor Tyrosine Kinase

Romance of the Three Kingdoms

33 / 48

When starting a new DCS-MAPS drawing what is the default unit base of measurement?

Feet

Meters

Yards

Inches

34 / 48

Which of the following are regional satellite systems?

GPS, BeiDou, GLONASS, and Galileo

GLONAS , GPS, EGNOS, and NAVSAT

NAVIC, QZSS, EGNOS, and GAGAN

GNSS, GPS, GLONASS, and COMPASS

35 / 48

What are the four input parameters required to calculate magnetic variation for a coordinate position?

An Earth Gravitational Model, the Horizontal Intensity, the Vertical Component, and a Good Attitude

WGS-84 Ellipsoid, True Axis, the ".cof" File, and Coordinates

MGRS, Grid Zone ,True Axis, and the Year of Variation

Latitude & Longitude, Altitude, and Date

36 / 48

The Global Positioning System (GPS) is a satellite constellation in what type of orbit around the Earth?

Molniya Orbits: Inclination of 63.4 degrees, with an apogee of about 40,000 km and a perigee of about 1,000 km

Geosynchronous Earth Orbit (GEO): These satellites orbiting at 35,786 km, and have a period precisely equal to one day

Medium Earth Orbit (MEO) is in between the lower Van Allen belt and upper Van Allen belt within the altitudes of 5,000Km to 15,000 Km

Low Earth Orbit (LEO) is below the lower Van Allen belt in the altitude of 500 to 2,000 Km

37 / 48

Which of the following Pavement Condition Index (PCI) ratings match the following definition: "Pavement has mainly high severity distresses which cause operational restrictions. Repair needs are immediate."?

Failed

Serious

Very Poor

Fair

38 / 48

Which types of soil are more susceptible to frost?

Sandy and Clayey Silts

Well Graded Gravel, and Silty Sand

Poorly Graded Gravel and Silty Sand

Sandy Clay and Loam

39 / 48

What should be provided for C-17 LZs without a parallel taxiway?

A qualified Air Traffic Controller, or 7-Level Combat Controller

Turnarounds must be provided at both ends of the runway

Between 0' - 6,000' MSL, an additional 500' of runway length must be provided

At least one intersecting taxiway with a width of 50'

40 / 48

Due to potential Foreign Object Damage (FOD) concerns, individual parking aprons should be provided for each parked C-17 aircraft on semi-prepared LZ?

True

False

41 / 48

What is the allowable 'rate' of longitudinal grade change for a taxiway?

Maximum 2.0% per 30 m (100 ft.)

Minimum 2.0% per 30 m (100 ft.)

Maximum 1.5% per 61 m (200 ft.)

Minimum 1.5% per 61 m (200 ft.)

42 / 48

What are two factors that effect runway length requirements?

Pressure Altitude (PA), and Runway Condition Rating (RCR)

Temperature, and Runway Condition Rating (RCR)

Runway Condition Rating (RCR), and Rolling Resistance Material (RRM)

Rolling Resistance Material (RRM), and Runway Surface Conditions (RSC)

43 / 48

The ELF command is an acronym for:

Edge, Limits and Files

Ends, Lines and Filaments

Ends, Lines and Fillets

Edge, Lines and Fillets

44 / 48

**According to the Unified Soil Classification System (USCS) chart, which one of the following lists of soil types is incorrect?**

OL, OH, CL, CH

WG, PG, MG, CG

GW, GP, GM, GC

SW, SP, SM, SC

45 / 48

What does the acronym PCASE stand for?

Pavement-Concrete & Asphalt Surface Evaluation

Pavement-Transportation Computer Assisted Structural Engineering

Primary Computer Aided Software Engineering

Protect, Concentrate, Aggregate, Symbolize, Equivocate

46 / 48

Vegetation over 3 inches is not allowed in the graded area?

True

False

47 / 48

If, after several attempts, you are unable to calibrate a serviceable Laser Range Finder's internal compass, what can you suspect is the reason(s) for the failure?

You're just dumb and have no idea of what you're doing right now

STS, Inc. Level 1 & 2 Instructors forced you to learn faulty procedures

Several Magnetic Variation "Lines of Convergence" beneath the Earth's surface are interfering with the device

You may be utilizing a NO, or LOW voltage battery and it must be replaced, or the Inclinometer may have to be reset prior to calibrating the compass

48 / 48

10+ Bonus Points!! Translate the following phrase from Latin to English!

Assumere Nil; fiduciam nemo!

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Level 1 & 2 – Final Test

What types of space(s) are established around an LZ (in relation to runways, helipads, or helicopter runways), that are designed to define the protected "airspace" around an airfield?

What is the nomenclature for a Drop Zone Survey Form?

What does the acronym CBR stand for?

Semi-prepared (i.e. unpaved) LZ surfaces may be composed of the following?

What does the acronym CDS stand for?

What is the file type generated by GSI Surveyor and used to import into DCS-MAPS?

What is the Maintained Area obstruction tolerance, and the grade & slope criteria?

Who initiates an 'Operational Waiver' to an ETL 04-7 Criteria?

How does a reduced RCR evaluation, and an increase in (PA) Pressure Altitude effect C-17 landing operations?

Which Function-Key toggles on/off the OSNAP mode?

What are some examples of the type of activities that should be limited within an Accident Potential Zone (APZ)?

What are the three patterns for runway markings?

Runway designation markings are relative to the magnetic azimuth (vs. True azimuth) of the runway centerline to the nearest 10-degree increment?

A solid white 'side stripe' on a runway indicates the edge of the usable pavement?

When firing the TruPulse 360 Laser Range Finder (LRF), maintain a minimum of _____ safe clearance from fire hydrants, road signs, seer cap or drains, steel poles, ATVs, guy wires, magnets, chain-link fences, bar-wire fences?

When are Fixed Distance Markings used on runways?

What is required for a Tactical Drop Zone approval?

What are the three types of particle size distribution curves?

What are the correct markings for a Helipad's Perimeter & Identification with a single direction ingress?

What's the Glideslope Ratio (GSR) for a C-146A "Wolfhound"?

If a runway is closed for less than five (5) days, how should it be marked?

If more than half of a soil sample passes through a #200 sieve it can be categorized as _______?

When can a layer of soil (measurement and CBR readings) be discarded from analysis?

What should be the order of priority when determining the locations of DCP, i.e. CBR, readings for an airfield?

When conducting DCP readings which soil horizons are you most likely to encounter?

Which of the eight different surface distress types are considered major distresses, and depending on location may cause an overall airfield rating of RED?

During a DCP reading, how should a subsurface impenetrable & unidentifiable layer be handled?

If a crack intersects both concrete slab joints ___ feet from the corner, it is considered a _______. If it is ___ feet, then it is considered a(n) _______.

What are the Runway Clearance distances for both C-130 & C-17 aircraft on Paved and Semi-Prepared (unsurfaced) LZ's?

NOTE: Runway Clearance = Measured from the runway centerline to the near edge of the parking apron. Aprons may be contiguous with the runway, but parked aircraft and vehicles must be behind this line.

The overall performance of a GNSS is assessed using what four criteria?

How long is a Sidereal Day and how is it measured?

What does the acronym RTK stand for?

When starting a new DCS-MAPS drawing what is the default unit base of measurement?

Which of the following are regional satellite systems?

What are the four input parameters required to calculate magnetic variation for a coordinate position?

The Global Positioning System (GPS) is a satellite constellation in what type of orbit around the Earth?

Which of the following Pavement Condition Index (PCI) ratings match the following definition: "Pavement has mainly high severity distresses which cause operational restrictions. Repair needs are immediate."?

Which types of soil are more susceptible to frost?

What should be provided for C-17 LZs without a parallel taxiway?

Due to potential Foreign Object Damage (FOD) concerns, individual parking aprons should be provided for each parked C-17 aircraft on semi-prepared LZ?

What is the allowable 'rate' of longitudinal grade change for a taxiway?

What are two factors that effect runway length requirements?

The ELF command is an acronym for:

According to the Unified Soil Classification System (USCS) chart, which one of the following lists of soil types is incorrect?

What does the acronym PCASE stand for?

Vegetation over 3 inches is not allowed in the graded area?

If, after several attempts, you are unable to calibrate a serviceable Laser Range Finder's internal compass, what can you suspect is the reason(s) for the failure?

10+ Bonus Points!! Translate the following phrase from Latin to English!

Assumere Nil; fiduciam nemo!

If a crack intersects both concrete slab joints _ feet from the corner, it is considered a ___. If it is _ feet, then it is considered a(n) _______.

**According to the Unified Soil Classification System (USCS) chart, which one of the following lists of soil types is incorrect?**