STS Critique

Name
First Last
What is the established space around an LZ (in relation to runways, helipads, or helicopter runways), designed to define the protected airspace around an airfield called?
- a. Accident Potential Zone(s)
- b. Clear Zone(s)
- c. Imaginary Surface(s)
- d. Infield Area(s)
What is the nomenclature for a Drop Zone Survey Form?
- a. AFSOC Form 3823
- b. USAF Form 3823
- c. DoD Form 3823
- d. AF IMT 3823
What does the acronym CBR stand for?
- a. California Bearing Ratio
- b. Curriculum Based Regulations
- c. California Burgers Rule
- d. Calculated Bearing Rules
Semi-prepared (i.e. unpaved) LZ surfaces may be composed of the following?
- a. Gravel, Sand, Silt, and Clay; except Loam
- b. Well Graded Gravel & Sand, only
- c. Well Graded Gravel & Sand, with stabalizing material
- d. Stabilized soils, Aggregate surfaces, Compacted native soils, or matting
What does the acronym CDS stand for?
- a. Container Delivery System
- b. Combat Delivery System
- c. Container Direction System
- d. Combat Direction System
What file type generated by GSI Surveyor is used to import into DCS-MAPS?
- a. LXM
- b. XYZ
- c. KMZ
- d. XML
What is the Maintained Area obstruction tolerance, and grade / slope criteria?
- a. Free of Obstructions. Up Slope Only; Minimum 10% / Max. 15%
- b. Max. 3 ft tall Obstructions. Up & Down Slope; greater than +10%
- c. Frangible Obstructions Only. Up & Down Slope; Minimum 10% / Maximum 20%
- d. Free of Obstructions. Up & Down Slope; may not exceed +10, or -20%
Who initiates an 'Operational Waiver' to an ETL 04-7 Criteria?
- a. The OPR for the mission or excersie
- b. The Airfield Survey Team
- c. The MAJCOM/DO (Major Command/Director of Operations)
- d. The JFACC, or JOC equivalent
How does a reduced RCR evaluation, and an increase in (PA) Pressure Altitude effect C-17 landing operations?
- a. It increases the aircrafts weight limitations and reduces its lift capablility
- b. It increases landing surface length requirements
- c. It increases the aircrafts lift capability, and reduces landing surface length requirements
- d. No Effect at all; that's just jibberish!
Which Function-Key toggles on/off the OSNAP mode?
- a. F8
- b. F10
- c. F3
- d. F2
What are some examples of the type of activities that should be limited within an Accident Potential Zone (APZ)?
- a. General Order #1, and other Tom Foolery
- b. Troop Concentrations, Landfills, Crops & Vegetation, Smoke Pit
- c. Exceeding published Glide Slope Ratio, Low Approaches, and Go-Arounds
- d. Use of NAVAIDs, Air Traffic Control and Ground Taxi Operations
What are the three patterns for runway markings?
- a. AMP 1, AMP 2, and AMP 3
- b. Basic, Nonprecision Instrument Approach, and Precision Instrument Approach
- c. STS-1, STS-2, and STS-3
- d. Prepared, Semi-Prepared, Unsurfaced
True or False? Runway designation markings are relative to the magnetic azimuth (vs. True azimuth) of the runway centerline to the nearest 10-degree increment?
- a. True
- b. False
True or False? A solid white 'side stripe' on a runway indicates the edge of the usable pavement?
- a. True
- b. False
When firing the TruPulse 360 Laser Range Finder (LRF), maintain a minimum of _____ safe clearance from fire hydrants, road signs, seer cap or drains, steel poles, ATVs, guy wires, magnets, cahin-link fences, bar-wire fences?
- a. 30 ft (10 m)
- b. 15 ft (5 m)
- c. 6 ft (2 m)
- d. 18 inches (50 cm)
When are Fixed Distance Markings used on runways?
- a. Always, as long as there's enough white paint on hand
- b. Only for runways are at least 150 ft (45.7m) wide
- c. For Non-Precision Runways and Military Airfields
- d. For National and International Runways
What is required for a Tactical Drop Zone approval?
- a. Supported Force Commander Tasking
- b. A physical survey/site inspection, ONLY
- c. A physical survey and a safety of flight review
- d. Supporting & Supported Force Commander Approval
What are the three types of particle size distribution curves?
- a. Cu = D60/D10. Cc = (D30)2/(D10 x D60). (Ps - Pw / 18n) x D2
- b. Well Graded, Poorly Graded, Gap Graded
- c. ASTM. FHWA. NAVFAC
- d. Atterburg, Yong, and Casagrande
What are the correct markings for a Helipad's Perimeter & Identification with a single direction ingress?
- a. A black colored capital "H" underlined, with broken square marking corners and along the edges to delineate the limits of the safe touchdown area
- b. A black colored capital "H" with a chevron arrow indicating the direction of ingress
- c. A red colored lower case "h" with dashed perimeter lines marking the minimum touchdown area
- d. A black colored capital "H" inside a white cross background and solid red border
What's the Glideslope Ratio (GSR) for a C-146A "Wolfhound"?
- a. 8:1
- b. 11:1
- c. 20:1
- d. 35:1
If a runway is closed for less than five (5) days, how should it be marked?
- a. Ensure an "X" is placed at all access points to the closed pavement
- b. Obliterate the centerline stripe and mark the runway with an "X" at every intersection
- c. Obliterate the designation numbers on both ends of the runway and mark an "X" in place of the numbers
- d. No markings required; if NOTAM has been issued
If more than half of a soil sample passes through a #200 sieve it can be categorized as _______?
- a. Sand
- b. Gravel
- c. Silt, and/or Clay
- d. Loam
When can a layer of soil (measurement and CBR readings) be discarded from analysis?
- a. Never
- b. If a soft layer of less than 4 in (10 cm) exists as a top layer
- c. Before and after using a drill to get past an impenetrable layer
- d. If a soft layer of less than 4 in (10 cm) exists at any depth
A C-130 Hercules, needs _____ of runway length for contingency landings?
- a. 2,500 feet
- b. 3,000 feet
- c. 3,500 feet
- d. 4,000 feet
What should be the order of priority when determining the locations of DCP, i.e. CBR, readings for an airfield?
- a. Touchdown, Primary Breaking Area, Point of Rotation, and Turnaround
- b. Primary Breaking Area, Turnaround, Touchdown, and Point of Rotation
- c. Overrun, Touchdown, Roll-Out Area, Primary Breaking Area, Turnaround, and Overrun
- d. Wet Areas, Repaired Areas, Primary Breaking Area, Turnaround, Touchdown, Point of Rotation
When conducting DCP readings which soil horizons are you most likely to encounter?
- a. A, B, C, and D Horizons
- b. O, A, E, and B Horizons
- c. 1, 2, 3, and 4 Horizons
- d. A & B Horizons, only
Which of the eight different surface distress types are considered major distresses, and depending on location may cause an overall airfield rating of RED?
- a. Jet Blast Erosion, Stabilized Layer Failure, and Longitudinal Cracking
- b. Mist, Fog, Dust, Smoke, and other obstructions to visibility
- c. Stabilized Layer Failure, Slab Cracking, and CBR readings less than four (4)
- d. Potholes, Ruts, and Rolling Resistance Material
During a DCP reading, how should a subsurface impenetrable & unidentifiable layer be handeled?
- a. Auger through the impenetrable layer until you're able to take additional readings
- b. Assign a CBR value of 80, and call it a day
- c. Pull out the DCP and reinsert a new tip into the hole but at a different angle
- d. Ring the bell, and say the words, "I quit!"
If a crack intersects both concrete slab joints ___ feet from the corner, it is considered a _______. If it is ___ feet, then it is considered a(n) _______.
- a. > 5 ft / Shattered Slab/ < 5 ft / Interval Joint Seal Damage
- b. > 10 ft / Durability Crack / < 10 ft / Alligator Crack
- c. > 3 ft / Longitudinal Crack / < 3 ft / Transverse Crack
- d. > 2 ft / Corner Break / < 2 ft / Spall
What are the Runway Clearance distances for both C-130 & C-17 aircraft on Paved and Semi-Prepared (unsurfaced) LZ's?
- a. C-130 = 250 ft (76m) & C-17 = 280 (85.5m); they are the same for Paved & Semi-Prepared
- b. C-130 = 280 ft (85.5m) & C-17 = 250 (76m) for Paved LZ's. METT-TC for Semi-Prepared
- c. C-130 = 250 ft (76m) & C-17 = 280 (85.5m); for Semi-Prepared, add 10 ft (3.3m) for Paved
- d. C-130 = 250 ft (76m) & C-17 = 280 (85.5m); for Paved; add 10 ft (3.3m) for Semi-Prepared
NOTE: Runway Clearance = Measured from the runway centerline to the near edge of the parking apron. Aprons may be contiguous with the runway, but parked aircraft and vehicles must be behind this line.
The overall performance of a GNSS is assessed using what four criteria?
- a. Low, Medium Low, Medium High, and High
- b. Honor, Integrity, Service, and Excellence
- c. Accuracy, Integrity, Continuity, and Availability
- d. Altitude, Elevation, Rotation, and Timing
How long is a Sidereal Day and how is it measured?
- a. 24 hours 37 minutes and 22.4 seconds. Measures the rotation of the Earth relative to the Stars rather than the Sun
- b. 24 hours 6 minutes and 4.1 seconds. Measures the rotation of the Sun relative to the Stars rather than the Earth
- c. 23 hours 56 minutes and 4.1 seconds. Measures the rotation of the Earth relative to the Stars rather than the Sun
- d. 56 hours 23 minutes and 4.1 seconds. Measures the rotation of the Stars relative to the Sun rather than the Earth
What does the acronym RTK stand for?
- a. Right To Know
- b. Real Time Kinematic
- c. Receptor Tyrosine Kinase
- d. Romance of the Three Kingdoms
When starting a new DCS drawing what is the default units' base of measurement?
- a. Feet
- b. Meters
- c. Yards
- d. Inches
Which of the following are regional satellite systems?
- a. GPS, BeiDou, GLONASS, and Galileo
- b. GLONAS , GPS, EGNOS, and NAVSAT
- c. NAVIC, QZSS, EGNOS, and GAGAN
- d. GNSS, GPS, GLONASS, and COMPASS
What are the four input parameters required to calculate magnetic variation for a position?
- a. An Earth Gravitational Model, the Horizontal Intensity, the Vertical Component, and a Good Attitude
- b. WGS-84 Ellipsoid, True Axis, the ".cof" File, and Coordinates
- c. MGRS, Grid Zone ,True Axis, and the Year of Variation
- d. Latitude & Longitude, Altitude, and Date
The Global Positioning System (GPS) is a satellite constellation in what type of orbit around the Earth?
- a. Molniya Orbits: Inclination of 63.4 degrees, with an apogee of about 40,000 km and a perigee of about 1,000 km
- b. Geosynchronous Earth Orbit (GEO): These satellites orbiting at 35,786 km, and have a period precisely equal to one day
- c. Medium Earth Orbit (MEO) is in between the lower Van Allen belt and upper Van Allen belt in the altitude of 5000 to 15000 Km
- d. Low Earth Orbit (LEO) is below the lower Van Allen belt in the altitude of 500 to 2000 Km
Which of the following Pavement Condition Index (PCI) ratings match the following definition: "Pavement has mainly high severity distresses which cause operational restrictions. Repair needs are immediate."?
- a. Failed
- b. Serious
- c. Very Poor
- d. Fair
Which types of soil are more susceptible to frost?
- a. Sandy and Clayey Silts
- b. Well Graded Gravel, and Silty Sand
- c. Poorly Graded Gravel and Silty Sand
- d. Sandy Clay and Loam
What should be provided for C-17 LZs without a parallel taxiway?
- a. A qualified Air Traffic Controller, or 7-Level Combat Controller
- b. Turnarounds must be provided at both ends of the runway
- c. Between 0' - 6,000' MSL, an additional 500' of runway length must be provided
- d. At least one intersecting taxiway with a width of 50'
True or False? Due to potential FOD concerns, individual parking aprons should be provided for each parked C-17 aircraft on semi-prepared LZ?
- a. True
- b. False
What is the allowable 'rate' of longitudinal grade change for a taxiway?
- a. Maximum 2.0% per 30 m (100 ft)
- b. Minimum 2.0% per 30 m (100 ft)
- c. Maximum 1.5% per 61 m (200 ft)
- d. Minimum 1.5% per 61 m (200 ft)
What are two factors that effect runways length requirements?
- a. Pressure Altitude (PA), and Runway Condition Rating (RCR)
- b. Temperature, and Runway Condition Rating (RCR)
- c. Runway Condition Rating (RCR), and Rolling Resistance Material (RRM)
- d. Rolling Resistance Material (RRM), and Runway Surface Conditions (RSC)
The ELF command is an acronym for:
- a. Edge, Limits and Files
- b. Ends, Lines and Filaments
- c. Ends, Lines and Fillets
- d. Edge, Lines and Fillets
According to the USGS soil classification chart, which one of the following lists of soil types is incorrect?
- a. OL, OH, CL, CH
- b. WG, PG, MG, CG
- c. GW, GP, GM, GC
- d. SW, SP, SM, SC
When letting Google Earth know where you are in DCS-MAPS you must use the command Set/Reset Location.
- a. True
- b. False
What does the acronym PCASE stand for?
- a. Pavement-Concrete & Asphalt Surface Evaluation
- b. Pavement-Transportation Computer Assisted Structural Engineering
- c. Primary Computer Aided Software Engineering
- d. Protect, Concentrate, Aggregate, Symbolize, Equivocate
Vegetation over 3 inches is not allowed in the graded area?
- a. True
- b. False
If, after several attempts, you are unable to calibrate a serviceable Laser Range Finder's internal compass, what can you suspect is the reason(s) for the failure?
- a. You're just dumb and have no idea of what you're doing right now
- b. STS, Inc. Level 1 & 2 Instructors forced you to learn faulty procedures
- c. Several Magnetic Variation "Lines of Convergence" beneath the Earth's surface are intefering with the device
- d. You may be utilizing a NO, or LOW voltage battery and it must be replaced, or the Inclinometer may have to be reset prior to calibrating the compass

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